by Michael Christian

Hello, first off great article on this subject. I have also been interested in finding out more about this question of whether or not demons or fallen angels if you will, at one time co inhabited with women producing Giants in the days preceding the flood.

This doesn?t seem logical at all to me, nor do I think that God would allow this to happen. We know from scripture that a third of the angelic realm revolted against God and have been confined to this earth. Demons we are told are able to possess people and even desire to control a host, which then begs the question of why would they desire to reproduce? If they can directly enter a person why would they need to reproduce? Furthermore nowhere in scripture are we told that angels have DNA, reproductive organs, genealogies etc. nor do they have the ability to reproduce.

If this sort of thing went on before the flood why did it stop? If demons had an appetite for female flesh back then this activity would have continued every day of every year since that time. Some would argue that God put a stop to it as per Genesis 6:3, however these are the same people that tend to hold the end time doctrine that this behavior is once again starting citing the ?as it was in the days of Noah? line.

The Genesis 6 account does note however that the wickedness of men was great in the earth and subsequently displeasing to God, not the wickedness of demons. If women were being raped, seduced or willingly participating in some reproductive project of the demonic realm why would this iniquity be laid at the feet of men?

Numbers 13:33 use the word Giant (Nephalim) twice.

This is now after the flood, after the time of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, after the captivity of Israel and just before the time of entering the Holy Land. If God did put a stop to this in Noah?s day why are these ?offspring of Demons? back? In the time of the Judges through Samuel and into Kings we find the Israelites coming up against ?Giants? with no suggestion of anything demonic in particular going on. Could it be that this was simply human genetics? Genesis 6:4 support this as well stating, ? There were giants on the earth in those days, and also afterward?.

Luke 3:38 identifies Adam as a Son of God. The other scriptures pertaining to this subject listed on this webpage also do a great job of explaining this relationship.

Hebrews 1:5-14 is crucial in that it reveals to us that only Jesus Christ has been begotten of the Father in Heaven (in accordance with John 3:13). No Angel or Demon can ever claim this. They can only say that God is their creator, not their Father. The Father and Son paradigm is different than that of servant. Angels are messengers or servants of the Most High, Jesus Christ is not. Angels and demons are outside the God family, we are not. As the first of the first fruits and our elder brother, Jesus Christ has exclaimed to us through his word that we are too the Sons of God.

We are heirs to the throne of God, even Satan himself who is a high ranking ?anointed cherub? is an heir to nothing! We are destined to be born again into the God family and sit on thrones and reign with Christ as kings and priests judging angels!

Glory be to God!

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Jul 21, 2015
You Misssed A Few Things
by: Dante Fortson

1. The Bible doesn't say they don't have sex. It says the angels IN HEAVEN don't marry. It says nothing about fallen angels that are no longer in heaven.

2. The Bible does not once call fallen angels demons. That is Church tradition, not scripture. When compared side by side, demons and angels are not the same at all.

3. Animals don't marry, but they have sex and offspring. Same with insects. Same with people who choose not to marry. Marriage has nothing to do with the ability to have sex or bear offspring. The Bible never says angels can't have sex. That's church myth and its adding to scripture, which God warns against.

Oct 08, 2010
by: Michael

Yes, precisely TJ well said. Another point, in Luke 20:27-40 Jesus says we are the children of God, which is usually translated sons in most other places.

I also believe it is significant that Jesus said the angels neither marry nor are given in marriage. The primary reason for marriage and having two fleshes become one is reproduction. So therefore if the angels don’t do this they do not reproduce.

I have heard the theory that extrapolates that Jesus meant the angels in heaven don’t marry whereas a fallen angel can marry and reproduce. I see no biblical precedent whatsoever for this activity, although I did see this in a Nicholas Cage (known occultist) movie once where the angel falls in love with Meg Ryan’s character and falls from grace thus taking on human flesh.

Some believe that because an angel can appear as a man and have done so in the past this automatically means this angel must be fallen. When Abraham was sitting in the door of his tent in the mid day heat, (Genesis 18) and was approached by the one we have come to know as Jesus Christ and two angels with him appearing as men, were they fallen? Does that make sense that The Almighty showed up with two fallen angels? Would God then send these two fallen ones to carry out his judgment on Sodom and Gomorrah? I don’t believe so.

Oct 07, 2010
Humans in the Resurrection
by: TJ

There is this scripture from Matt 22:30 that sheds a little bit of light on the discussion of who's wife this woman would be in the resurrection. Here is what Jesus said in response.

For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

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